XV were Christian is beyond doubt; and it is equally certain that Beowulf was composed in a Christianised England, since conversion took place in the sixth and seventh centuries. Yet the only Biblical references in Beowulf are to the Old Testament, and Christ is never mentioned. The poem is set in pagan times, and none of the characters is demonstrably Christian. In fact, when we are told what anyone in the poem believes, we learn that they are pagans. Beowulf's own beliefs are not expressed explicitly. He offers eloquent prayers to a higher power, addressing himself to the "Father Almighty" or the "Wielder of All." Were those the prayers of a pagan who used phrases the Christians subsequently appropriated? or, did the poem's author intend to see Beowulf as a Christian Ur-hero, symbolically refulgent with Christian virtues" (Yeager)
Interesting though Vis and Ramin share some characteristics with Hellenistic romances written around the same period, it doesn't share much with Beowulf because the latter is not a romance per se. A number of motifs in this tale are also found in some Hellenistic romances because there is a great deal of similarity between Hellenistic and Parthain cultures. Some of these include abduction of the bride, her inability to refuse advances from people other than her true love, presence of a temptress whose sole purpose is to dissuade people from their true wishes. (Davis, 2002)
The fact that Vis and Ramin was written under Parthian rule is documented in various commentaries include the one by Minorsky where he concludes that, "at no period in the long history of Iran, did the material, and especially the geographical conditions, correspond to those described in Vis u Ramin, except at the time of Parthian dominion,...
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